HKSI Paper 6Topics 1–4

Topic 1 · Overview

Weighting 20–30% · Foundation of the entire regulatory regime for asset management

What this Topic really tests
Topic 1 is the “map of the territory”. Examiners expect you to know who regulates what, how a firm gets and keeps a licence, the 9 General Principles, and the ongoing obligations that keep a firm fit and proper. Almost every later Topic assumes you already understand these concepts.
★ Must Memorise: After this Overview, go to the dedicated “Expected Learning Outcomes Q&A” section. The official ELOs are the exact competence statements the examination is built on.
Core areas covered
SFO + AMLO + SFC codes/guidelines · SFC & HKMA · Licensing & registration · Code of Conduct · Professional investors · ICG · Personal data · AML/CFT · Discipline · Corporate governance · MPFA & IA

Topic 1 · Expected Learning Outcomes – Comprehensive Q&A

Exact official wording + model answers · all 25 ELOs (a)–(y)

ELO (a)
describe the various products, services, service providers and investors concerned with the asset management industry;

The Hong Kong asset management industry centres on managing portfolios of securities and futures contracts, collective investment schemes (CISs) and related products. Main products include listed and unlisted securities, exchange-traded and OTC derivatives, unit trusts and mutual funds authorised under the UT Code, open-ended fund companies (OFCs), REITs, structured products, MPF schemes and pooled retirement funds (PRFs).

Core services are Type 9 asset management (discretionary portfolio management and CIS management), with supporting services including Type 4 advice, Type 1 dealing, Type 13 depositary services, trustee/custodian services, distribution/marketing and fund administration. Service providers are primarily SFC-licensed corporations and registered institutions (with the HKMA as front-line supervisor for AFIs). Investors range from retail clients through professional investors to institutions such as pension funds, insurers and endowments.

ELO (b)
describe the principles guiding the activities of the SFC, the MPFA, the IA and the HKMA and the objectives they have set themselves in their work;

The SFC’s mission is to strengthen and protect the integrity and soundness of Hong Kong’s securities and futures markets for investors and the industry. It adopts a principles-based and risk-based approach, emphasising intermediary responsibility (especially senior management accountability under GP9). Objectives include investor protection, market integrity, and fair and efficient markets.

The MPFA protects MPF scheme members’ interests. The Insurance Authority regulates insurers and intermediaries and protects policyholders. The HKMA safeguards monetary and banking stability and front-line supervises authorised financial institutions that are also registered institutions under the SFO. Where mandates overlap, regulators co-operate through MoUs and coordinated reviews.

ELO (c)
explain the definition of asset management, securities, futures contracts and CISs (and any exceptions) under the SFO;

Type 9 asset management means managing a portfolio of securities or futures contracts for another person, or managing a CIS. “Securities” is wide and includes shares, stocks, debentures, bonds, notes, interests in CISs and certain other instruments. Futures contracts cover exchange-traded contracts and certain OTC contracts for differences.

A CIS is an arrangement under which participants contribute money or property, contributions are pooled, and the purpose/effect is to enable participation in profits, income or other returns. Important exceptions include same-group arrangements, certain solicitor client-money arrangements in ordinary professional practice, and certain pure deposit arrangements. Exceptions are a frequent exam trap.

ELO (d)
explain the provisions governing offers of investments in Part IV, SFO, the authorisation of advertisements and control over misrepresentations and assess the importance of these provisions, authorisation and control;

Part IV of the SFO governs offers of investments. It controls invitations to the public to acquire interests in CISs and certain other investment products, and requires SFC authorisation of relevant advertisements and offering documents unless an exemption applies. The regime is designed to prevent unregulated public offers and misleading marketing.

Product authorisation powers allow the SFC to refuse authorisation where a product is not in the interest of the investing public (investor protection and transparency concerns are classic grounds). Misrepresentation controls and advertising authorisation requirements are central—unauthorised public offers and misleading statements can attract regulatory and criminal consequences.

ELO (e)
describe the nature of public open-ended fund company (“OFC”) and the special provisions affecting them in Part IVA of the SFO;

A public OFC is a corporate CIS vehicle with variable capital, registered and regulated under Part IVA of the SFO. Unlike a traditional Companies Ordinance company, an OFC is purpose-built for collective investment with share capital that can expand and contract as investors enter and exit.

Operating an OFC without required SFC registration is a regulatory breach punishable by fine and/or imprisonment. Share rights are defined in (and may be varied only according to) the instrument of incorporation. OFCs sit alongside unit trusts as a mainstream Hong Kong fund structure.

ELO (f)
determine the various SFC codes and guidelines which are specific to the asset management industry (which will be studied in later Topics in detail);

Asset-management-specific SFC codes and guidelines include the Fund Manager Code of Conduct (FMCC), the Handbook for Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds / UT Code, OFC Code, Code on REITs, PRF Code, SFC Code on MPF Products, and related circulars (e.g. liquidity risk management and climate-related risks). The general Code of Conduct and ICG also apply to licensed corporations/registered institutions.

These instruments are not criminal statutes by themselves, but they are admissible and highly relevant to fitness-and-properness and disciplinary assessments. Topic 3 studies product and manager codes in depth; Topic 1 requires the map of which instruments exist and what they regulate.

ELO (g)
describe the framework of the law and regulations relating to Mandatory Provident Fund (“MPF”) schemes;

The MPF system is a mandatory occupational retirement savings regime under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance and related regulations. Employers and relevant employees must participate; schemes are overseen by the MPFA, with investment products and certain intermediaries also touching the SFC’s perimeter.

ORSO schemes are a separate voluntary/exemptable regime: ORSO schemes generally must be registered or exempted unless they are MPF schemes or certain overseas-government schemes. Do not confuse compulsory MPF with ORSO.

ELO (h)
cite the roles and functions of the SFC, its committees and divisions;

The SFC is an independent statutory body outside the civil service. It is organised into divisions covering intermediaries, investment products, enforcement, supervision, corporate finance and market infrastructure, supported by committees and advisory bodies that assist policy and process review.

Key functions include licensing and supervision of intermediaries, product authorisation, market surveillance, investigation and enforcement, and policy-making for market development and investor protection.

ELO (i)
describe the structure and functions of relevant regulators and how they co-operate with each other in areas where their regulatory mandates overlap;

Relevant regulators include the SFC, HKMA, MPFA and IA. The SFC is the principal securities/futures regulator; the HKMA is front-line supervisor of AFIs that are registered institutions; the MPFA oversees MPF schemes and intermediaries’ MPF conduct; the IA regulates insurance entities and intermediaries.

Where mandates overlap (e.g. AFI registered institutions, MPF intermediaries who are also SFC/HKMA licensees), co-operation is effected through MoUs, dual reviews and information sharing. Simultaneous SFC–MPFA reviews of MPF products is a standard co-ordination model tested in exams.

ELO (j)
explain the SFC’s licensing regime for intermediaries involved in asset management and the general licensing and registration requirements and restrictions on conducting regulated activities under the SFO;

Anyone carrying on (or holding out as carrying on) a regulated activity in Hong Kong must be licensed by the SFC (licensed corporation) or registered (registered institution, typically an AFI front-line supervised by the HKMA). Type 9 is the core asset-management licence; other types (1, 4, 13, etc.) support dealing, advice and depositary functions.

A licensed corporation needs at least two Responsible Officers per regulated activity; at least one must be an executive director and at least one must be based in Hong Kong and available to supervise. Every individual executive director of a licensed corporation must himself/herself be approved as a Responsible Officer. Unlicensed regulated activity is a criminal offence.

ELO (k)
explain the SFC’s fit and proper requirements and its guidelines for intermediaries conducting asset management activities;

Fit and proper is continuous and assessed under four heads: (1) financial status/solvency; (2) educational qualifications/experience; (3) ability to carry on the activity competently, honestly and fairly; and (4) reputation, character, reliability, financial integrity and honesty.

Bankruptcy (including overseas proceedings), dishonesty, regulatory sanctions (including foreign sanctions), or competence failures can render a person not fit and proper. The SFC can refuse, suspend or revoke licences/registrations. Virtual-asset fund managers with material non-security VA exposure may need additional SFC terms and conditions.

ELO (l)
explain how the Code of Conduct applies to intermediaries involved in the asset management industry;

The Code of Conduct for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the SFC applies to all licensed corporations and registered institutions. A breach is not itself a criminal offence, but the SFC takes breaches into account for fitness and properness and may take disciplinary action (reprimand, fine, suspension, revocation).

The Code applies across regulated activities relevant to asset managers. Junior staff are not automatically exempt: the SFC considers the person’s level of responsibility, control and knowledge when assessing Code breaches.

ELO (m)
explain the general principles and other requirements of the Code of Conduct to practical matters;

Nine General Principles: GP1 honesty and fairness; GP2 diligence/best execution; GP3 resources and procedures (link to ICG); GP4 KYC/suitability; GP5 clear information; GP6 conflicts; GP7 compliance; GP8 client assets; GP9 senior management responsibility for risk and conduct standards.

In practice these drive order handling, client agreements, risk disclosure, Chinese walls, personal account dealing and complaint handling. Client Identity Rule Policy typically requires identity information within 2 business days of an SFC request. Senior management cannot simply delegate away GP9 accountability.

ELO (n)
explain the key conduct requirements that apply to trustees and custodians undertaking Type 13 regulated activity;

Type 13 covers providing depositary services for relevant CISs. Trustees/custodians/depositaries must safeguard scheme property, oversee certain manager functions as required by product codes, and maintain independence and operational resilience appropriate to the role.

If a depositary becomes aware of a material change in the extent of services it can provide to an authorised CIS, the most appropriate immediate conduct response is to inform the management company of the CIS in a timely manner so that investor interests and regulatory notifications can be managed.

ELO (o)
explain the conduct requirements in relation to dealing with over-the-counter derivative (“OTCD”) transactions and determine the importance of these requirements;

OTCD conduct and risk-mitigation requirements apply to relevant licensed corporations dealing with non-centrally cleared OTC derivatives. A classic scope point: a licensed corporation managing a portfolio of NCC OTCDs for a CIS under Type 9 can fall within SFC risk-mitigation requirements for those transactions.

Related OTCD reporting/record-keeping obligations (Topic 2) interact with conduct expectations: accurate reporting, timely records, and systems that prevent under-reporting. Licence type and activity determine which OTCD rules bite.

ELO (p)
describe the objectives and guidelines for key areas of internal control identified under ICG;

The Management, Supervision and Internal Control Guidelines (ICG) identify key control areas including management and supervision, segregation of duties, personnel and training, information management, compliance, audit, operational controls and risk management.

ICG is a guideline, not a free-standing criminal statute. Its legal status is that breaches may be considered when assessing fitness and properness. It sets the control architecture that GPs 3 and 7 of the Code of Conduct expect firms to implement in practice.

ELO (q)
explain how senior management of the licensed corporations should supervise their businesses under the ICG;

Senior management must actively supervise the business, require and assist in establishing proper systems, and remain ultimately accountable for culture and controls. Compliance procedures should cover AML controls, business practices/internal controls, and client and staff dealings—not marketing vanity metrics.

Supervision includes adequate management information, escalation paths, and ensuring compliance/audit have appropriate independence and reporting lines. Delegation of tasks does not equal delegation of responsibility.

ELO (r)
explain general principles guiding the handling of personal data under the PDPO;

The PDPO’s data protection principles cover purpose and manner of collection, accuracy and retention, use, security, openness, and access/correction rights. Collection must be for a lawful purpose directly related to a function of the data user, and data should be adequate but not excessive.

Collecting unrelated lifestyle preferences “to tailor future products” is a classic lawful-purpose / excessiveness breach. Firms must also control use (not using data for a new purpose without consent) and retention.

ELO (s)
explain the key AML/CFT related legislations in Hong Kong and the steps applicable to the identification and reporting of money laundering and terrorist financing (“ML/TF”);

Key AML/CFT ordinances include AMLO, the Drug Trafficking (Recovery of Proceeds) Ordinance, the Organized and Serious Crimes Ordinance, and the United Nations (Anti-Terrorism Measures) Ordinance. Firms must identify, assess and mitigate ML/TF risks and report suspicious transactions to the JFIU.

Failure to comply with GAML or HKMA AML guidelines can lead to SFC disciplinary action including fines and fitness concerns. Institutional risk assessments must be kept current (commonly tested: review at least every two years).

ELO (t)
determine how to effectively adopt risk-based approach (“RBA”) to identify suspicious circumstances and ML/TF risks that arise in relation to third parties and implement necessary AML/CFT policies and procedures to manage and/or report the ML/TF risks;

A risk-based approach requires firms to identify higher-risk customers, products, delivery channels and geographies, apply enhanced due diligence where risk is higher, and simplify only where risk is demonstrably low. RBA is continuous, not a one-off onboarding form.

Effective RBA means translating risk assessments into policies, systems, training and STR decision-making. Third-party and intermediary risks must be managed.

ELO (u)
describe the principles applied by the SFC in exercising its fining powers under the SFO and the AMLO;

When setting fines under the SFO/AMLO, the SFC considers nature, seriousness and impact; intention/recklessness/negligence; duration and frequency; financial benefit; co-operation (self-reporting and remediation are heavily rewarded); and disciplinary history.

Prompt reporting, full documentation, acceptance of liability and client compensation can lead to material reduction (exam materials often cite up to around 30% reduction for co-operation).

ELO (v)
explain how senior management should direct and supervise a business, outlining the strengths and deficiencies in corporate governance;

Senior management must direct and supervise the business properly. OECD-style corporate governance principles emphasise fairness, transparency, accountability and responsibility. Weak boards, unclear reporting lines and unmanaged conflicts are themselves fitness issues.

Deficiencies in governance—rubber-stamp boards, dominant individuals without challenge, or missing independent oversight—can amplify every other control failure.

ELO (w)
explain the mechanisms by which the SFC exercises its regulatory mandate to supervise the industry;

The SFC supervises through off-site monitoring, on-site inspections, thematic reviews, circulars, licensing conditions and enforcement. It can require production of records, interview persons, and refer matters for MMT or criminal routes where misconduct is involved.

Day-to-day supervision is risk-based: higher-impact intermediaries and thematic industry risks attract more attention. Circulars often operationalise expectations after inspections.

ELO (x)
describe the definition of MPF intermediaries, the supervisory role of the MPFA and the basic provisions of the guidelines issued by the MPFA concerning the conduct of MPF intermediaries;

MPF intermediaries are persons who engage in regulated MPF sales/advice activities as defined under MPF legislation/guidelines. The MPFA is the lead supervisor for MPF intermediary registration/conduct in its domain, while front-line regulators (SFC or HKMA) continue to supervise the person as a securities/banking intermediary where dual-hatted.

MPF intermediaries are subject both to MPFA Conduct Guidelines and to their front-line regulator’s rules. Exam focus: dual coverage, not “MPFA only” or “SFC only” for dual-regulated persons.

ELO (y)
describe the basic provisions of the codes of conduct issued by the IA and covering licensed insurance agents and licensed insurance brokers.

The Insurance Authority’s codes of conduct for licensed insurance agents and brokers set general principles and expected standards analogous to the SFC Code (honesty, competence, disclosure, conflicts, client interest). They apply to licensed insurance intermediaries, including where firms cross-sell basic insurance alongside securities advice.

For Paper 6, know that IA codes exist, apply to agents and brokers, and form part of the multi-regulator map introduced in Topic 1.

Topic 1 · Official Knowledge Checks (complete set)

All official Study Guide v2.7 knowledge-check questions for this topic · 25 questions

★ Exam practice: Full official knowledge checks from HKSI LE Paper 6 Study Guide v2.7. Work them after reading the topic. Wrong answers reveal the correct option.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q1
Which of the following service(s) is/are provided by financial intermediaries in the asset management industry? I Sales, marketing and distribution II Trustee services III Discretionary portfolio management IV Depositary services
A. I only
B. I and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
Correct: D. I, II, III and IV
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q2
According to the SFC’s regulatory philosophy, who holds primary responsibility for ensuring compliance within an intermediary?
A. The compliance department, under the supervision of the SFC.
B. The intermediary’s legal counsel, who interprets regulations.
C. Senior management, who must oversee risk management and conduct standards.
D. External auditors appointed by the intermediary.
Correct: C. Senior management, who must oversee risk management and conduct standards.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q3
Which ONE of the following would typically be EXCLUDED from the definition of a CIS under the SFO?
A. A real estate investment trust managed by a licensed intermediary.
B. An arrangement where the participants and the operator belong to the same group of companies.
C. A pooled investment fund offered to retail investors.
D. An arrangement where a solicitor holds client funds for investment purposes.
Correct: B. An arrangement where the participants and the operator belong to the same group of companies.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q4
Gamma Investments applies to the SFC for authorisation of a structured product. After reviewing the application, the SFC refuses authorisation, citing concerns about investor protection and lack of transparency. Which ONE of the following statements BEST explains the SFC’s decision under Section 104A of the SFO?
A. The SFC will approve all structured products unless they breach criminal law.
B. The SFC may refuse authorisation if it believes the product is not in the interest of the investing public.
C. The SFC may only refuse authorisation if the applicant lacks a Type 9 licence.
D. The SFC must escalate the decision to the Process Review Panel before refusing authorisation.
Correct: B. The SFC may refuse authorisation if it believes the product is not in the interest of the investing public.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q5
Under Part IVA of the SFO, which ONE of the following statements regarding the registration of OFCs is CORRECT?
A. An OFC must be registered with the HKMA before commencing business.
B. Operating an OFC without SFC registration is a regulatory breach punishable by fine and/or imprisonment.
C. Registration is optional for OFCs that only invest in overseas markets.
D. An OFC may operate without registration if it is incorporated under the Companies Ordinance.
Correct: B. Operating an OFC without SFC registration is a regulatory breach punishable by fine and/or imprisonment.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q6
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the SFC’s Codes of Conduct and guidelines is CORRECT?
A. They are legally binding and breaches constitute criminal offences.
B. They are subsidiary legislation and enforceable by the courts.
C. They are admissible as evidence in court proceedings under the SFO.
D. They apply only to authorised products, not intermediaries.
Correct: C. They are admissible as evidence in court proceedings under the SFO.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q7
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the ORSO is CORRECT?
A. ORSO schemes are compulsory for all employers in Hong Kong.
B. ORSO schemes must be registered or exempted unless they are MPF schemes or set up by overseas governments.
C. ORSO schemes are regulated by the MPFA under the MPFSO.
D. ORSO schemes are only applicable to government employees.
Correct: B. ORSO schemes must be registered or exempted unless they are MPF schemes or set up by overseas governments.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q8
Which ONE of the following statements BEST describes the SFC’s status in Hong Kong?
A. It is an independent statutory body outside the civil service.
B. It is a statutory body within the civil service.
C. It is a government department under the Financial Services and the Treasury Bureau.
D. It is a private regulatory agency funded by listed companies.
Correct: A. It is an independent statutory body outside the civil service.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q9
Which ONE of the following statements BEST describes how the SFC and MPFA coordinate in the regulation of MPF products?
A. The MPFA handles all regulatory matters while the SFC provides administrative support.
B. The SFC and MPFA conduct separate reviews of MPF products without collaboration.
C. The SFC and MPFA conduct simultaneous reviews and share responsibilities based on their mandates.
D. The SFC oversees trustees while the MPFA monitors investment managers.
Correct: C. The SFC and MPFA conduct simultaneous reviews and share responsibilities based on their mandates.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q10
Alpha Capital, a licensed corporation, manages a portfolio where 12% of the gross asset value is invested in virtual assets that are not classified as securities or futures contracts. The firm is unsure whether it needs to comply with additional SFC requirements. Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Alpha Capital must comply with the SFC’s additional terms and conditions for Virtual Asset Fund Managers.
B. Alpha Capital is not subject to any additional requirements because the virtual assets are not securities.
C. Alpha Capital must apply for a Type 1 licence to continue managing the portfolio.
D. Alpha Capital is exempt from SFC oversight because the virtual assets fall under AMLO, not the SFO.
Correct: A. Alpha Capital must comply with the SFC’s additional terms and conditions for Virtual Asset Fund Managers.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q11
Which ONE of the following individuals would MOST LIKELY be considered NOT fit and proper under the SFC’s financial status requirements?
A. A responsible officer who failed to meet a judgment debt five years ago but has since settled it.
B. A licensed representative currently involved in bankruptcy proceedings overseas.
C. A relevant individual who was discharged from bankruptcy three years ago.
D. An executive officer who has never been bankrupt but has a poor credit score.
Correct: B. A licensed representative currently involved in bankruptcy proceedings overseas.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q12
Emily, a licensed representative at a registered institution, notices that her firm has not been issuing proper risk disclosure statements to clients investing in high-volatility products. She is not in a supervisory role and has limited control over firm-wide practices. How would the SFC LIKELY assess Emily’s responsibility under the Code of Conduct?
A. Emily would be held fully responsible for the firm’s failure to issue disclosures.
B. Emily would not be subject to any assessment since she is not a responsible officer.
C. The SFC would consider Emily’s level of responsibility, control, and knowledge in applying the Code.
D. Emily would be exempt from the Code of Conduct due to her junior position.
Correct: C. The SFC would consider Emily’s level of responsibility, control, and knowledge in applying the Code.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q13
According to the Client Identity Rule Policy, when must a licensed person provide client identity information to the SFC upon request?
A. Immediately
B. Within 2 business days
C. Within 5 business days
D. Within 7 calendar days
Correct: B. Within 2 business days
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q14
A Depositary becomes aware of a material change in the extent of services it can provide to an authorised CIS. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?
A. Notify the SFC immediately and suspend services until further notice.
B. Inform the management company of the CIS in a timely manner.
C. Continue providing services unless the change breaches legal requirements.
D. Submit a revised service agreement to the CIS’s board of directors.
Correct: B. Inform the management company of the CIS in a timely manner.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q15
Which ONE of the following entities is subject to the SFC’s risk mitigation requirements for non-centrally cleared OTCD transactions?
A. A registered person acting as a counterparty to an OTCD transaction.
B. A licensed corporation managing a portfolio of NCC OTCDs for a CIS under Type 9 regulated activity.
C. A licensed corporation dealing in OTCDs under Type 11 regulated activity.
D. A CIS that enters into NCC OTCD transactions through its governing body.
Correct: B. A licensed corporation managing a portfolio of NCC OTCDs for a CIS under Type 9 regulated activity.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q16
Which ONE of the following statements BEST reflects the legal status of the ICG?
A. It is a statutory requirement under the SFO and breaches result in fines.
B. It is a guideline that may be considered in assessing fitness and properness.
C. It is a mandatory code enforced by the Hong Kong Monetary Authority.
D. It is a voluntary framework used for internal benchmarking.
Correct: B. It is a guideline that may be considered in assessing fitness and properness.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q17
Which of the following are within the scope of compliance procedures that senior management should require and assist in establishing? I Anti-money laundering controls II Business practices and internal controls III Marketing campaign performance metrics IV Client and staff dealings
A. I and IV only
B. II and III only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, and IV only
Correct: D. I, II, and IV only
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q18
A licensed corporation collects detailed personal data from clients during account opening, including unrelated lifestyle preferences. The firm argues this helps tailor future product offerings. Which ONE of the following principles is MOST LIKELY being breached?
A. Accuracy and retention
B. Use
C. Lawful purpose
D. Access
Correct: C. Lawful purpose
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q19
Which ONE of the following may result from failure to comply with the GAML or HKMA guidelines?
A. Automatic revocation of the firm’s business license
B. Criminal prosecution under the Prevention of Bribery Ordinance
C. Disciplinary action by the SFC, including fines and fitness concerns
D. Mandatory liquidation of the firm’s client accounts
Correct: C. Disciplinary action by the SFC, including fines and fitness concerns
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q20
A licensed corporation offers face-to-face financial advisory services and sells basic insurance products to local residents. The firm has not updated its institutional risk assessment in over three years. Which ONE of the following BEST describes the firm’s compliance status?
A. Fully compliant, as the business model is low-risk.
B. Non-compliant, as the institutional risk assessment must be reviewed at least every two years.
C. Partially compliant, as customer risk assessments are more important than institutional ones.
D. Compliant, provided the MLRO has reviewed customer transactions recently.
Correct: B. Non-compliant, as the institutional risk assessment must be reviewed at least every two years.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q21
A VAS provider licensed under AMLO promptly reports a breach to the SFC, provides full documentation, accepts liability, and compensates affected clients. The misconduct was negligent but caused no market harm. Which ONE of the following will MOST LIKELY be the SFC's response under its fining guidelines?
A. Reduce the sanction by up to 30% due to cooperation
B. Impose the maximum fine due to the breach of AML obligations
C. Refer the case to law enforcement without imposing a fine
D. Automatically revoke the licence due to AML breach
Correct: A. Reduce the sanction by up to 30% due to cooperation
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q22
Which ONE of the following BEST reflects the OECD’s core principles of corporate governance?
A. Profit maximisation, market expansion, and shareholder returns
B. Fairness, transparency, accountability, and responsibility
C. Efficiency, innovation, compliance, and control
D. Risk management, internal audit, and board independence
Correct: B. Fairness, transparency, accountability, and responsibility
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q23
A firm applies for an SFC license. One of its directors has previously been sanctioned by a foreign regulator for failing to disclose conflicts of interest. Which ONE of the following will the SFC MOST LIKELY consider?
A. The SFC may approve the license if the director has not committed any breaches under Hong Kong law and has since completed compliance training.
B. The SFC will likely assess the director’s overall fitness and propriety, including past conduct in other jurisdictions, before making a decision.
C. The SFC will automatically reject the application, as any foreign sanction disqualifies a person from holding a license in Hong Kong.
D. The SFC will defer the licensing decision to the foreign regulator that issued the sanction, as it has jurisdiction over the matter.
Correct: B. The SFC will likely assess the director’s overall fitness and propriety, including past conduct in other jurisdictions, before making a decision.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q24
Which ONE of the following statements BEST describes the regulatory coverage of MPF intermediaries?
A. They are governed only by the MPFA, which sets both licensing and conduct standards.
B. They follow the MPFA Conduct Guidelines and may also be subject to rules from their frontline regulator.
C. They are exempt from MPFA oversight if they are licensed by the SFC or HKMA.
D. They must comply with MPFA rules only when advising on fund selection, not during scheme promotion.
Correct: B. They follow the MPFA Conduct Guidelines and may also be subject to rules from their frontline regulator.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 1 Q25
Which ONE of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the requirements stipulated in the Brokers’ Code?
A. Brokers are not required to follow any of the eight general principles.
B. Brokers are exempt from maintaining controls and procedures.
C. Brokers are only responsible for arranging policies, not advising clients.
D. Brokers must conduct due diligence on products and insurers before making recommendations.
Correct: D. Brokers must conduct due diligence on products and insurers before making recommendations.

1.1 Introduction & Regulators

SFC philosophy, mission and how the regulators work together

SFC Mission
“To strengthen and protect the integrity and soundness of the Hong Kong securities and futures markets for the benefit of investors and the industry.”
Regulatory Landscape
SFC
Primary regulator
HKMA
Front-line for AFIs
MPFA
IA
Exam Trap: AFIs conducting regulated activities are registered institutions. The HKMA is front-line supervisor, but the SFC retains licensing power and disciplinary authority.

1.2 Framework of Laws & Regulations

SFO Map for Asset Managers
PartContentExam relevance
Part IVOffers of investments, CIS & structured product authorisation, advertisements, misrepresentationsHigh
Part IVAOpen-ended fund companies (OFCs)Medium–High
Part VLicensing & registrationVery High
Part VICapital, client assets, records, accounts & auditHigh
Part VIIBusiness conduct (basis for Code of Conduct)High
Parts XIII & XIVMarket misconduct (civil MMT / criminal)High (Topic 4)

1.4 Licensing & Fit and Proper

★ Must Memorise: At least two Responsible Officers for each regulated activity; at least one must be an executive director; at least one must be based in Hong Kong and available at all times.
Licensing Decision Flow
Carry on or hold out
regulated activity?
Must be licensed
or registered
Otherwise criminal
offence
Responsible Officer Requirements
  • At least two ROs per regulated activity
  • At least one executive director
  • At least one based in Hong Kong and available at all times
  • Must have sufficient authority
Fit & Proper – Four Categories
  • Financial status / solvency
  • Educational / other qualifications or experience
  • Ability to carry on the activity competently, honestly and fairly
  • Reputation, character, reliability, financial integrity and honesty

1.5 Code of Conduct – 9 General Principles

★ Must Memorise GP9: Senior management are primarily responsible for the proper management of risk, maintenance of standards of conduct, and adherence to proper procedures.
GP1 Honesty & Fairness
Act honestly, fairly and in the best interests of the client and the integrity of the market.
GP2 Diligence
Act with due skill, care and diligence. Prompt and best execution.
GP3 Capabilities
Have and effectively employ the resources and procedures needed.
GP4 Information about Clients
KYC, suitability, complex products, BCAN/CID.
GP5 Information for Clients
Clear, adequate and timely information.
GP6 Conflicts of Interest
Identify, avoid, manage and disclose conflicts.
GP7 Compliance
Comply with all regulatory requirements and maintain systems.
GP8 Client Assets
Proper segregation and protection of client assets.
GP9 Senior Management
Primary responsibility for risk and conduct standards.

1.6 ICG

Eight Key Areas
Management & Supervision · Segregation of Duties · Personnel & Training · Information Management · Compliance · Audit · Operational Controls · Risk Management
Straight-A Note: The ICG and GP9 together mean that if something goes wrong the SFC will ask “Where was senior management?”

1.7–1.8 Personal Data & AML/CFT

Six PDPO Principles
Purpose & manner of collection · Accuracy & retention · Use · Security · Openness · Access & correction
AML/CFT – Risk-Based Approach
Identify, assess and mitigate ML/TF risks. Higher-risk customers require enhanced due diligence. Suspicious transactions must be reported to the JFIU.

1.9 Discipline

★ Must Memorise: Full and timely cooperation, early self-reporting and genuine remediation almost always produce a materially lighter outcome.
Fining Factors
Nature/seriousness/impact · Intentional/reckless/negligent · Duration/frequency · Financial benefit · Cooperation · Previous record

1.10 Corporate Governance

Expectation
Senior management must actively direct and supervise the business. Weak governance is itself a fitness-and-properness concern.
Bridge to Topic 4
Topic 4 lists “corporate mis-governance” as an improper practice. Fuller discussion lives here.

Topic 2 · Overview

Weighting 22–33% · Continuous back-office and capital obligations

Core message
Licensing is not a one-time event. Once licensed, a firm must continuously meet capital rules, protect client assets, keep proper records, notify the SFC of key changes, and produce audited accounts.

Topic 2 · Expected Learning Outcomes – Comprehensive Q&A

Exact official wording + model answers · all 3 ELOs (a)–(c)

ELO (a)
explain the requirements of SFO subsidiary legislations on ongoing notification, capital requirements, client securities, client money, record keeping, contract notes, accounts and audit for asset managers;

SFO subsidiary legislation imposes ongoing notification, Financial Resources Rules (FRR) capital requirements, Client Securities Rules, Client Money Rules, record-keeping rules, contract note rules, and accounts/audit requirements on asset managers that are licensed corporations (and, for several regimes, on registered institutions as well).

Returns for firms permitted to hold client assets are a frequent trap. Client money exemptions, contract-note timing (generally by the end of the second business day after the transaction), and segregation/safeguarding of client securities and money are core back-office test areas.

ELO (b)
explain the main operative provisions of the OFC Rules and evaluate how they affect the formation and subsequent operation of OFCs;

The OFC Rules govern formation, registration, share capital mechanics, directors/custodian arrangements and ongoing operation of open-ended fund companies. Share capital is variable; share class rights are defined in and varied only according to the instrument of incorporation.

Evaluate how OFC Rules interact with SFC registration under Part IVA and with the OFC Code (Topic 3) for authorised products. Operational consequences include redemption mechanics, capital movements, and governance of the corporate CIS vehicle versus a unit-trust structure.

ELO (c)
explain the requirements of the Securities and Futures (OTC Derivative Transactions - Reporting and Record Keeping Obligations) Rules. Note that several of the above apply to registered institutions as well as licensed corporations.

The Securities and Futures (OTC Derivative Transactions – Reporting and Record Keeping Obligations) Rules require prescribed persons to report specified OTC derivative transactions to an approved trade repository and to keep related records.

Exemptions are narrowly drawn. Read exemption conditions carefully (including whether exemption once lost can be “regained”). Record-keeping supports regulatory reconstruction of OTCD activity and complements risk-mitigation conduct standards.

Topic 2 · Official Knowledge Checks (complete set)

All official Study Guide v2.7 knowledge-check questions for this topic · 5 questions

★ Exam practice: Full official knowledge checks from HKSI LE Paper 6 Study Guide v2.7. Work them after reading the topic. Wrong answers reveal the correct option.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 2 Q1
Which ONE of the following is NOT a return required for a licensed corporation permitted to hold client assets?
A. Analysis of assets under management
B. Analysis of proprietary derivative positions
C. Summary of bank loans and credit facilities
D. Analysis of profit and loss account
Correct: D. Analysis of profit and loss account
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 2 Q2
Which ONE of the following scenarios would exempt client money from the Client Money Rules?
A. Money received in Hong Kong by a licensed corporation for Type 8 activity
B. Money held by an associated entity outside Hong Kong
C. Foreign currency received in Hong Kong
D. Money held in a trust account for a CIS
Correct: B. Money held by an associated entity outside Hong Kong
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 2 Q3
By when must a contract note be provided to the client?
A. On the same day the transaction is executed
B. Within one business day of settlement
C. By the end of the second business day after the transaction
D. Within five calendar days of the transaction
Correct: C. By the end of the second business day after the transaction
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 2 Q4
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the share capital of an OFC is CORRECT?
A. Shares must carry equal voting rights and profit participation.
B. Share classes may be created, but rights cannot be varied once set.
C. Share rights are defined and may be varied only according to the instrument of incorporation.
D. Shares are non-transferable unless approved by the SFC.
Correct: C. Share rights are defined and may be varied only according to the instrument of incorporation.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 2 Q5
With reference to the OTCD Reporting Rules, which ONE of the following statements regarding the exemption from reporting is CORRECT?
A. A licensed corporation is exempt if its total notional amount of outstanding OTC derivatives is below US$30 million.
B. A licensed corporation is exempt if it only trades OTC derivatives on behalf of clients.
C. A licensed corporation regains exemption status if its notional amount drops below US$30 million.
D. A licensed corporation is exempt if it trades OTC derivatives cleared through a central counterparty.
Correct: A. A licensed corporation is exempt if its total notional amount of outstanding OTC derivatives is below US$30 million.

2.1 Ongoing Notification Requirements

Key Statutory Notification Deadlines
EventDeadline
Intention to cease a regulated activityASAP, no later than 7 business days before
Change of business addressAt least 7 business days’ advance notice
Changes to information previously suppliedWithin 7 business days of the change
Person becomes / ceases to be a directorNo later than 7 business days thereafter
Annual returnWithin 1 month of licensing anniversary
Audited financial statementsWithin 4 months of financial year-end
Exam Trap: “Immediately” for material breaches (Code of Conduct 12.5) is stricter than the 7-business-day windows for ordinary changes.

2.2 Capital Requirements (FRR)

Two Layers of Capital
  • Paid-up share capital – Type 9: generally HK$5 million; Type 13: HK$10 million.
  • Required Liquid Capital (RLC) – liquid capital must at all times be ≥ RLC.
Common Exemption
Type 4, 5, 9 or 10 firms subject to a licensing condition that they must not hold client assets are generally exempt from the paid-up share capital requirement.

2.3–2.4 Client Securities & Client Money

★ Must Memorise: Client money must generally be paid into a segregated account within 1 business day of receipt.
Client Money Receipt Decision Tree
Receive client money
Within 1 business day
Segregated trust account

2.5–2.6 Record Keeping & Contract Notes

General Record-Keeping Rule
Records must be retained for at least seven years.

2.7–2.8 Accounts, Audit & OFCs

Accounts & Audit
Auditor must be appointed · Notify SFC of financial year-end · Annual financial statements + auditor’s report within 4 months of year-end.

2.9 OTC Derivatives Reporting & Record Keeping

Key Obligations
Specified OTC derivative transactions must be reported to the Hong Kong Trade Repository. LEIs are required.

Topic 3 · Overview

Weighting 37–48% · Highest weighting · Product and conduct rules for asset managers

Why Topic 3 carries the most marks
This is where the detailed rules for how asset managers must organise themselves, manage funds, deal with investors, and obtain and maintain authorisation for products live.

Topic 3 · Expected Learning Outcomes – Comprehensive Q&A

Exact official wording + model answers · all 4 ELOs (a)–(d)

ELO (a)
explain the SFC’s requirements for the asset managers as specified in the FMCC, the Handbook, the UT Code, OFC Code, Code on REITs and PRF Code;

The FMCC sets organisational, operational, dealing and reporting standards for fund managers of CISs and discretionary accounts. The Handbook and product codes (UT Code, OFC Code, Code on REITs, PRF Code) add product-level authorisation and operational requirements. Together they form the conduct backbone for Type 9 managers of authorised/public products.

FMCC themes include senior management responsibility, conflicts, risk management, custody arrangements, marketing fairness, fees/expenses and SFC reporting. Risk management must identify relevant risks and implement procedures to measure, manage and monitor them.

ELO (b)
explain the authorisation procedures and requirements, the investment requirements as well as the ongoing requirements under the UT Code, Code on REITs, SFC Code on MPF Products, Code on MPF Investment Funds and PRF Code;

Authorisation under the UT Code and related product codes requires fit documentation, eligible managers/trustees/custodians, acceptable investment and borrowing limits, disclosure and ongoing compliance. REITs, MPF products and PRFs have specialised codes with analogous authorisation and ongoing regimes.

Investment-in-other-CISs rules, diversification and eligible-asset constraints are heavily tested. If a PRF product provider is not incorporated or has no place of business in Hong Kong, it must appoint the local representative/process arrangements required by the PRF regime. Custodians may hold scheme property in omnibus accounts only under strict conditions (adequate safeguards, proper records, and compliance with code requirements).

ELO (c)
explain the requirements of the SFC circulars related to liquidity risk management and climate-related risks;

SFC circulars on liquidity risk management require fund managers to assess liquidity of liabilities and assets, implement tools and governance, and ensure redemption terms are compatible with portfolio liquidity. Climate-related risk expectations for large fund managers require governance, investment processes, risk management and disclosure proportionate to size and strategy.

Large Fund Managers under enhanced standards face additional expectations such as disclosing methodology and assumptions used in carbon emissions calculations where climate disclosure applies. Focus on process, disclosure quality and proportionality.

ELO (d)
describe the different arrangements that have been made under the MRF and RJS.

Mutual Recognition of Funds (MRF) arrangements (notably Mainland–Hong Kong) and other recognition/passport-style schemes allow eligible funds authorised in one market to be offered in the other under streamlined processes, subject to criteria and ongoing conditions.

Recognised Mainland Funds under MRF face specific restrictions (e.g. investor composition/holding limits tested in the knowledge checks). Managers must still meet eligibility, disclosure and operational conditions; MRF is not a free passport without constraints.

Topic 3 · Official Knowledge Checks (complete set)

All official Study Guide v2.7 knowledge-check questions for this topic · 6 questions

★ Exam practice: Full official knowledge checks from HKSI LE Paper 6 Study Guide v2.7. Work them after reading the topic. Wrong answers reveal the correct option.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 3 Q1
Which ONE of the following BEST describes a Fund Manager’s responsibility regarding risk management under the FMCC?
A. Fund Managers must apply identical risk procedures across all funds to ensure consistency.
B. Fund Managers must identify relevant risks and implement procedures to measure, manage, and monitor them.
C. Fund Managers are only responsible for managing market and liquidity risks.
D. Fund Managers may delegate risk management entirely to custodians if disclosed in the offering document.
Correct: B. Fund Managers must identify relevant risks and implement procedures to measure, manage, and monitor them.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 3 Q2
Under what condition may a custodian hold scheme property in an omnibus account?
A. If the custodian is also the investment manager
B. If the custodian is licensed for both Type 1 and Type 9 regulated activities
C. If the OFC is a private fund and investor consent is obtained
D. If the scheme property is properly recorded and reconciled frequently
Correct: D. If the scheme property is properly recorded and reconciled frequently
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 3 Q3
Which ONE of the following statements regarding a CIS’s investment in other CISs under the UT Code is CORRECT?
A. A CIS may invest up to 50% of its NAV in non-eligible underlying schemes.
B. A CIS may invest more than 30% of its NAV in SFC-authorised schemes if disclosed in the offering document.
C. A CIS may invest in hedge funds without restriction.
D. A CIS must adopt a “see-through” approach for all underlying schemes.
Correct: B. A CIS may invest more than 30% of its NAV in SFC-authorised schemes if disclosed in the offering document.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 3 Q4
If a PRF Product Provider is not incorporated or does not have a place of business in Hong Kong, what must it do?
A. Submit a declaration of foreign compliance
B. Appoint a Hong Kong-based trustee
C. Appoint a representative in Hong Kong
D. Apply for exemption from local representation
Correct: C. Appoint a representative in Hong Kong
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 3 Q5
Which ONE of the following is a requirement for Large Fund Managers under the enhanced standards?
A. They must conduct scenario analysis for all funds annually.
B. They must disclose carbon emissions data only for funds with high environmental exposure.
C. They must disclose the methodology and assumptions used in carbon emissions calculations.
D. They must avoid investing in companies with high carbon footprints.
Correct: C. They must disclose the methodology and assumptions used in carbon emissions calculations.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 3 Q6
Which ONE of the following is a restriction placed on Recognised Mainland Funds under the MRF?
A. They must be managed by a Hong Kong-based manager.
B. They must not be offered to retail investors in the Mainland.
C. No more than 80% of their assets may be held by Hong Kong investors.
D. They must invest at least 50% of their assets in Hong Kong-listed securities.
Correct: C. No more than 80% of their assets may be held by Hong Kong investors.

3.1 Fund Manager Code of Conduct (FMCC)

★ Must Memorise: A Fund Manager may delegate functions but cannot delegate responsibility or obligations.
Four Main Parts
PartFocus
IOrganisation & management structure
IIFund management activities
IIIDealings with the fund and fund investors
IVReporting to the SFC

3.2–3.3 Handbook & CIS Authorisation

Authorisation Pathways (v2.7)
  • Fund Fast Track – target 10 working days for simple funds from MRF jurisdictions
  • Standard – typically 1–2 months
  • More complex products take longer

3.4 Authorised CISs – Investment Requirements

Core Philosophy
Investment restrictions exist to protect investors through diversification and risk control. Specialised schemes carry additional tailored rules.

3.5 Managers & Trustees / Custodians

Management Company
Must be licensed for Type 9 (or registered). Subject to fitness, capital, experience and operational requirements under the UT Code and FMCC.
Trustee / Custodian
Independent entity responsible for safekeeping of scheme assets and oversight of certain operational matters. Manager remains responsible for selection and ongoing monitoring.

3.6–3.7 OFC Code & REITs

Code on Open-Ended Fund Companies
Requires appointment of a Type 9 investment manager. Contains requirements applicable to all OFCs and additional requirements for private OFCs.
Code on REITs
REITs are specialised CISs focused on real estate. Authorisation, parties and operational rules differ in detail from the UT Code.

3.8–3.9 Liquidity & Climate Risks

Liquidity Risk Management Circular – Five Pillars
Governance · Product design & disclosure · Ongoing liquidity risk assessment · Stress testing · Liquidity risk management tools
Climate-related Risks
  • Baseline requirements – apply to all fund managers
  • Enhanced standards – apply to Large Fund Managers

3.10–3.11 Overseas Funds & MPF Products

MRF & RJS
Mainland–Hong Kong Mutual Recognition of Funds · Recognised Jurisdiction Scheme
MPF Products
Pooled retirement funds (PRF Code) · Dual oversight by SFC and MPFA

Topic 4 · Overview

Weighting up to 10% · Market misconduct, unsolicited calls, improper practices, enforcement

★ Core Principle – Must Memorise
The SFO creates PARALLEL provisions in Part XIII (civil – MMT) and Part XIV (criminal).
However, MMT proceedings and criminal prosecution CANNOT both be brought against the same person for the same act.
★ Study path: After this Overview, go straight to the dedicated Expected Learning Outcomes Q&A section. The eight ELOs are the exact competence statements the examiners test.

Topic 4 · Expected Learning Outcomes – Comprehensive Q&A

Exact official wording + model answers · all 8 ELOs (a)–(h)

ELO (a)
explain the differences between MMT proceedings and criminal prosecutions under the market misconduct provisions in the SFO and how they are adopted by the SFC in its investigations and enforcement activities;

Hong Kong uses a dual regime: Part XIII (MMT civil route) and Part XIV (criminal route) largely mirror the same market misconduct concepts. Parallel provisions exist, but proceedings before the MMT and criminal prosecution cannot both be pursued against the same person for the same act.

The SFC investigates and then, with the Secretary for Justice’s involvement as required, chooses the appropriate route based on evidence strength and public interest. Criminal cases need proof beyond reasonable doubt; MMT cases use the civil standard.

ELO (b)
explain the role of the MMT and the procedures adopted by the MMT in handling misconduct cases;

The Market Misconduct Tribunal is a specialist tribunal that determines whether market misconduct has occurred and identifies persons involved. It applies the civil standard of proof—on the balance of probabilities—not the criminal standard.

Procedures include institution of proceedings (with required consents), hearings, findings and orders. The MMT can impose civil sanctions such as disqualification orders, cold shoulder orders, disgorgement and costs.

ELO (c)
explain the various types of market misconduct and apply market misconduct cases in real-life situations;

Core market misconduct types include insider dealing, false trading, price rigging, disclosure of information about prohibited transactions, disclosure of false or misleading information inducing transactions, and stock market manipulation. Parts XIII/XIV largely replicate these; Part XIV also covers certain additional offences relevant to intermediaries.

Insider dealing combines connection + inside information + dealing/counselling/procuring or tipping-off, subject to defences. Wash trades (no change in beneficial ownership) are a classic false-trading illustration.

ELO (d)
describe the potential consequences of market misconduct under the MMT proceedings and criminal prosecutions;

MMT consequences can include cold shoulder orders (ban on trading in Hong Kong markets for a period), disqualification from company directorships/management, disgorgement of profits, and costs. Criminal consequences can include substantial fines and imprisonment (up to the statutory maxima taught in the guide).

Private civil actions may also follow. Severity tracks seriousness, impact, intent and co-operation. Unlicensed dealing attracts criminal liability and almost invariably fitness-and-properness consequences including industry bans.

ELO (e)
explain the private civil actions provided under the SFO that are available for persons affected by market misconduct;

The SFO provides private rights of civil action for persons who suffer pecuniary loss as a result of market misconduct. Critically, the right can be available regardless of whether the claimant traded the affected asset in the narrow way a candidate might assume—exam items often test breadth of standing and independence from public enforcement.

Private actions complement MMT/criminal routes and increase deterrence by enabling investor recovery.

ELO (f)
explain the prohibition against unsolicited calls and determine the circumstances where the prohibition applies;

Section 174 SFO restricts unsolicited calls in relation to certain agreements. Agreements entered into following a prohibited unsolicited call may be rescindable: the usual tested remedy is rescission by written notice within 28 days, or within 7 days after discovering the contravention (whichever timing rule applies on the facts).

Exemptions exist (e.g. certain existing client relationships and specified call types). Exam technique: identify whether a call is unsolicited, whether an exemption applies, and which rescission window runs.

ELO (g)
determine various common forms of improper trading practices;

Common improper practices include front running (trading ahead of a known client order using that knowledge), rat trading (re-allocating an already-executed profitable trade to oneself at the client’s expense), churning (excessive trading in a discretionary account to generate commission), boiler-room tactics, unsuitable recommendations and unauthorised trading.

Distinguish front running vs rat trading vs churning precisely—this is a favourite comparison set. Corporate mis-governance also links Topic 4 themes back to Topic 1 governance.

ELO (h)
identify the reasons behind enforcement actions taken by the SFC.

SFC enforcement actions are driven by investor harm, market integrity impact, deliberate or reckless misconduct, systemic control failures, unlicensed activity and concealment. Full co-operation, self-reporting and prompt remediation significantly reduce sanctions; inadvertent breaches with no investor harm often settle more leniently.

Unlicensed Type 9 activity is treated severely because it undermines the licensing gate. Enforcement lessons: document decisions, escalate issues early, and remediate.

Topic 4 · Official Knowledge Checks (complete set)

All official Study Guide v2.7 knowledge-check questions for this topic · 8 questions

★ Exam practice: Full official knowledge checks from HKSI LE Paper 6 Study Guide v2.7. Work them after reading the topic. Wrong answers reveal the correct option.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 4 Q1
Which ONE of the following statements regarding MMT proceedings and criminal prosecutions under the SFO is CORRECT?
A. MMT proceedings require consent from the Secretary for Justice.
B. MMT proceedings are initiated by the Secretary for Justice.
C. Criminal prosecutions are heard by the MMT.
D. Criminal prosecutions are based on civil law principles.
Correct: A. MMT proceedings require consent from the Secretary for Justice.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 4 Q2
What is the standard of proof applied in MMT proceedings?
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Clear and convincing evidence
C. On the balance of probabilities
D. Substantial likelihood of guilt
Correct: C. On the balance of probabilities
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 4 Q3
Which ONE of the following BEST describes a wash trade?
A. A trade executed to offset a previous loss
B. A trade involving the same securities with no change in beneficial ownership
C. A trade between two unrelated parties at market price
D. A trade that is not recorded on the stock exchange
Correct: B. A trade involving the same securities with no change in beneficial ownership
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 4 Q4
Which ONE of the following BEST describes a “cold shoulder order” issued by the MMT?
A. A restriction on holding senior positions in listed companies for a specified period
B. A ban on investing or trading in Hong Kong markets for up to five years
C. A requirement to disclose all future securities transactions to the SFC
D. A suspension of trading privileges on overseas markets
Correct: B. A ban on investing or trading in Hong Kong markets for up to five years
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 4 Q5
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the right to bring a private civil action under the SFO is CORRECT?
A. It is limited to investors who suffered losses due to insider dealing.
B. It applies only if the SFC has initiated enforcement proceedings.
C. It requires prior approval from the Secretary for Justice.
D. It is available regardless of whether the person traded the affected asset.
Correct: D. It is available regardless of whether the person traded the affected asset.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 4 Q6
Under the SFO, what is the remedy available to a person who entered into an agreement as a result of an unsolicited call?
A. File a complaint with the SFC within 14 days
B. Rescind the agreement by written notice within 28 days or 7 days after discovering the contravention
C. Request compensation from the intermediary within 30 days
D. Apply for a court injunction to void the agreement
Correct: B. Rescind the agreement by written notice within 28 days or 7 days after discovering the contravention
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 4 Q7
Which ONE of the following statements BEST illustrates front running?
A. An intermediary uses knowledge of a client’s pending trade to buy the same security for personal gain.
B. A fund manager delays allocating a profitable trade to a client account.
C. A broker executes trades without proper documentation or client consent.
D. An intermediary recommends a product that doesn’t match the client’s risk profile.
Correct: A. An intermediary uses knowledge of a client’s pending trade to buy the same security for personal gain.
Official Knowledge Check · Topic 4 Q8
Which ONE of the following is NOT a typical consequence of unlicensed dealing under the SFO?
A. Criminal conviction with fines and/or imprisonment
B. Requirement to pay the SFC’s investigation costs
C. Automatic revocation of all financial licences held
D. Industry ban due to failure to meet fit and proper criteria
Correct: C. Automatic revocation of all financial licences held

4.1 Insider Dealing – Full Breakdown

Inside Information
Specific information that is not generally known but, if it were, would be likely to affect the price materially.
Connected Persons
Directors, employees, substantial shareholders (≥5%), persons with professional/business access, and certain cross-transaction connected persons.
A. Dealing / Counselling / Procuring
Connected + knowingly has inside info
OR contemplating take-over (not for that purpose)
OR received from known connected person and knows it is inside info
B. Tipping-off
Connected person discloses inside info knowing or having reasonable cause to believe the recipient will deal / counsel / procure.
Main Defences
Chinese wall · Excluded purpose · Market contract · Counterparty knew · Pre-existing right
Straight-A Note: Memory structure = Connected person (or tippee) + Inside information + (Deal/Counsel/Procure OR Tip-off) − defence.

4.2 Other Forms of Market Misconduct

① False Trading
False or misleading appearance of active trading or artificial price. Wash trades & matched orders create a presumption.
② Price Rigging
Wash trade or fictitious/artificial transaction that affects the price.
③ Stock Market Manipulation
Two or more transactions that affect the price plus intention to influence other persons’ investment decisions.
④ & ⑤ Disclosure Offences
Disclosure of info about prohibited transactions · Disclosure of false/misleading info inducing transactions (civil includes negligence).

4.3 Consequences – MMT Orders, Criminal & Private Actions

MMT Composition
Chaired by a judge + two other members who shall not be public officers, all appointed by the Chief Executive.
MMT Orders
Disqualification · Cold shoulder (≤5 yrs) · Conduct prohibition · Disgorgement · Costs · Disciplinary referral
Criminal Sanctions
Indictment: 10 years + HK$10 million
Summary: 3 years + HK$1 million
Private Civil Action
Any person who suffers pecuniary loss may claim damages – even if they never traded the affected securities.

4.4 Unsolicited Calls (s.174 SFO)

★ Must Memorise the Rescission Rule: Written notice within 28 days after entering the agreement OR 7 days after discovering the contravention – whichever is the earlier.
How “whichever is earlier” works
Agreement signedContravention discoveredDeadline
1 March5 March8 March (7-day discovery clock)
1 March20 March29 March (28-day agreement clock)
1 March10 April29 March (28-day clock already expired)

4.5 Improper Trading Practices

Front Running
Trade ahead of a known client order using that knowledge.
Rat Trading
Re-allocate an already-executed profitable trade to yourself at the client’s expense.
Churning
Excessive trading in a discretionary account purely to generate commission.
Boiler-room / Unsuitability / Unauthorised Trades
High-pressure sales · Unsuitable recommendations · Trades without proper authorisation.
Corporate Mis-governance
All forms of misconduct by the board or management of a listed company, including failure to adhere to duties of disclosure. Fuller discussion in Topic 1 section 10.
Exam distinction:
Front running = trading ahead of a known client order.
Rat trading = re-allocating an already-executed profitable trade.
Churning = generating excessive trades purely for commission.

4.6 Enforcement Lessons & Unlicensed Dealing

Key Lessons from Official Cases
  • Full cooperation is heavily rewarded
  • Self-reporting + prompt remediation significantly reduces penalty
  • Inadvertent breaches with no investor harm often lead to settlement
  • Unlicensed Type 9 activity is a criminal offence and can lead to industry bans

Topic 4 · Master Exam Hotspots

Flip cards for active recall · tap / click a card to reveal the answer · Space/Enter also flips the focused card

Study tip: say the answer out loud before flipping.

0 / 6 cards flipped